while often derived from the New Testament, must be subject to testing. We may not be able to explain a particular appropriation of the Old in the New from the ground up, each step following inevitably and rationally from the previous one, and all resting on an unshakable foundation of agreed-upon propositions. But any explanation of the use of the Old Testament in the New must nevertheless be able to survive the test of rationality and adequacy. Does it make sense? Does it make better sense than
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